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1. A week after the flash flood for which their house was destroyed, Faye who is a 12-year old high school freshman, is noticed by her mother as having some difficulty sleeping and seems to panic at the sound of thunder and instance rain. What may Faye be manifesting? *

A. Acute Stress Disorder

B. Post-traumatic Stress Disorder

C. Phobic Disorder

D. Panic Disorder

2. Jeffrey, a 20-year old businessman, is having a difficult time deciding on whether to go abroad or invest his earnings in a risky local venture. Both choices have its own advantages and disadvantages. Both seem appealing and risky. For almost a month, he has been losing a lot of sleep while trying to make up his mind. *

A. Ambivalence

B. Insomnia

C. Inappropriate affect

D. Apathy

3. When Sandra was asked to go to the Guidance Office to talk to the counselor, she started crying, saying everything she had kept inside her. She talked about her problems with her family, the reason for her failing grades, her failed relationships and she goes on crying hysterically. What is she experiencing? *

A. Catharsis

B. Aggression

C. Free Association

D. Self-pity

4. Kim firmly believes that the year 2018 marks the end of all humanity. As a result of this, he goes to church every day, goes to confession every week and receives the Holy Communion every day. Kim is having ______________. *

A. Hallucinations

B. Panic Attack

C. Delusions

D. Phobia

5. When Kate’s boyfriend of 10 years left her, she ran to her room, locked the door and laughed out loud. *

A. Loosening of Thought Associations

B. Ambivalence

C. Euphoria

D. Inappropriate Affect

6. Carl knows that his pretty girlfriend likes skinny men. Because of this, Carl started losing his appetite for his favorite food and other foods until he does not want to eat at all.

A. Anorexia Nervosa

B. Binge Eating Disorder

C. Bulimia Nervosa

D. Obesity

7. Doctor: How are you doing today? Patient: you doing today Doctor: Have you taken your medication? Patient: taken medication

A. Echolalia

B. Neologism

C. Verbigeration

D. World Salad

8. Before going to sleep, Patty checks all doors in the house to make sure they are locked. 30 minutes later, she stands from the bed and checks the locks again before finally falling to sleep.

A. Obsession

B. Ambivalence

C. Delusions of Persecution

D. Compulsion

9. Randy is a 5-year old boy who stays in the corner by himself all day and does not join his classmates. He does not speak when spoken to but is heard singing to himself.

A. Inappropriate Affect

B. Selective Mutism

C. Ambivalence

D. Perseveration

10. Doctor: Tell me about your mother? Patient: My mother is okay. She was born in Laguna and studied in PCU. She met my father in the States. She gave birth the works in an RTW factory. She died a poor woman.

A. Tangentiality

B. Flight of Ideas

C. Clanging

D. Circumstantiality

11. A 20-year old student cannot recall the events of a class outing in which 20 of his classmates were drowned in a boating accident.

A. Depersonalization Disorder

B. Alzheimer’s disease

C. Dissociative Amnesia

D. Dissociative Fugue

12. A 45-year old woman has 20-year history of vague physical complaints. She says she has always been sick but the doctors cannot seem to identify the problem.

A. Hypochondriasis

B. Somatoform Disorder

C. Pain Disorder

D. Conversion Disorder

13. A 35-year old woman says that she always experiences palpitations, shortness of breath and for as long as she can remember, she always feels tense and nervous.

A. Panic Disorder

B. Acute Stress Disorder

C. Phobic Disorder

D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

14. A 40-year old man says that he feels as if he is outside of himself watching his life as though he was a spectator. He knows that he is really awake and that what he is feeling is only temporary.

A. Dissociative Fugue

B. Dissociative Identity Disorder

C. Depersonalization Disorder

D. Dissociative Amnesia

15. A 22-year old female medical student comes to the emergency room with increased heart rate, sweating and certain that she is having a heart attack. The symptoms started suddenly when she was in the shopping mall. Other than elevated pulse rate, the findings of the doctor are normal.

A. Phobic Disorder

B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

C. Panic Attack

D. Conversion Disorder

16. Marcus is 5 years old, he cannot communicate with others. He is unable to relate emotionally to others. However, he can remember directions to any location he has been to once. He can also recall 16-digit pin codes after having heard them only once. He can quickly solve extremely challenging mathematical puzzles. Marcus is most likely to be suffering from ____.

A. Down syndrome

B. Autistic savant syndrome

C. PKU syndrome

D. Fragile X syndrome

17. According to recent research, the fact that people with autistic disorder are less likely to gaze into other people's eyes when communicating with them and are less able to interpret others' facial expression for emotional cues may be due to abnormalities in their

A. neural circuitry.

B. learning processes.

C. attachment formation.

D. acetylcholine systems.

18. Mark talks a lot and often interrupts other to during conversations. He gets into fights with his friends for being unable to wait for his turn during games. He also has a difficult time sitting still, and has a tendency to interrupt others, but generally he can pay attention to what his teacher is saying as he moves around the room. He has not shown any of the symptoms of inattentiveness during the past six months. He has discipline problems and gets lower grades. Which type of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is Mark likely to be diagnosed with?

A. psychotic

B. hyperactive-impulsive

C. combined

D. overactive

19. Ramón's boss characterizes him as a habitual procrastinator who constantly misses project deadlines. He does not handle stress very well and blows up at his coworkers frequently. Ramón could possibly have the adult version of _____ disorder.

A. overanxious

B. conduct

C. oppositional defiant

D. attention-deficit/hyperactivity

20. According to researchers' estimate, which of the following disorders has highest rate of heritability of all psychiatric disorders?

A. overanxious disorder

B. conduct disorder

C. oppositional defiant disorder

D. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

21. Which of these medications is most commonly prescribed for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder?

A. Valium

B. Lithium

C. Xanax

D. Ritalin

22. Which of the following is an elimination disorder?

A. Dyslexia

B. Aphasia

C. Anorexia

D. Encopresis

23. _____ is an elimination disorder in which the child is incontinent of urine and urinates in clothes or in bed after the age when the child is expected to be continent.

A. Enuresis

B. Rumination disorder

C. Stereotypic movement disorder

D. Encopresis

24. Amanda, who is 6 years old, often urinates in her clothes. If Amanda has enuresis, the factor that would be LEAST important would be

A. if she has been successfully potty-trained.

B. her current age.

C. the frequency of her urinating in clothes.

D. the duration of her symptoms.

25. Which childhood disorder is characterized by a chronic combination of chronic movement and vocal tics?

A. stuttering

B. cluttering

C. Tourette's disorder

D. Tay-Sachs disease

26. Roger has a severe disorder that makes him blink his eye constantly. He also frequently bangs his head and makes growling noises. These repetitive behaviors are involuntary and occur frequently. Roger most likely has _____ disorder.

A. obsessive-compulsive

B. autistic

C. Asperger's

D. Tourette's

27. Leslie is a nine-year-old girl. Once she has swallowed her food, Leslie brings the food up to her mouth and chews it again. She does this frequently and it has resulted in a lack of appetite. Leslie has also lost all interest in food. She would most likely be diagnosed with

A. pica.

B. feeding disorder of infancy or early childhood.

C. rumination disorder.

D. ADHD.

28. A rapid, recurring, involuntary movement or vocalization is referred to as a(n)

A. habit.

B. obsession.

C. fixation.

D. tic.

29. Which of the following is true about the causes of intellectual developmental disorders?

A. Genetic abnormalities are a significant cause of intellectual developmental disorders.

B. Epigenetics does not play an important role in increasing an individual's risk of developing an intellectual developmental disorder.

C. The only two genetic causes for intellectual developmental disorders are Down syndrome and Fragile X syndrome.

D. The expression of a gene is independent of diet and living conditions.

30. In order to be considered mentally retarded, an individual's IQ must be

A. between 100 and 120.

B. between 80 and 100.

C. less than 100.

D. less than 70.

31. Pierce recently suffered from a head trauma, as a result of which he is unable to retain new information. He cannot remember his personal details, such as his name, address, and educational details. Which of the following diagnoses would best fit his condition?

A. akinesia

B. delirium

C. amnestic disorder due to a general medical condition

D. substance-induced amnestic disorders

32. A form of cognitive disorder involving generalized progressive deficits in a person's memory, ability to communicate, judgment, and motor coordination is referred to as

A. dementia.

B. amnestic disorder.

C. autism.

D. dysphoria.

33. Dementia is best defined as

A. a chromosomal disorder caused by the presence of a third copy of chromosome 21 and is associated with a delay in cognitive ability and physical growth.

B. a type of somatoform disorder in which the affected individual is preoccupied with a perceived defect of their physical features.

C. a form of cognitive impairment involving generalized progressive deficits in a person's cognitive functions.

D. an acute form of dyskinesia in which the affected part of the body is paralyzed.

34. Fred, who is 70-years old, has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. He has difficulty understanding what others are saying and also unable to speak to others. This symptom is referred to as

A. aphasia.

B. agnosia.

C. bipolar disorder.

D. autism.

35. A person who has the ability to understand verbal instructions and whose motor functioning is intact, but cannot carry out verbal instructions, as he is unable to coordinate motor functions is said to have

A. apraxia.

B. bipolar disorder.

C. anorexia.

D. dysphoric disorder.

36. Which of the following is a distinctive characteristic of apraxia?

A. A person with apraxia is unable to recognize familiar objects despite the ability to perceive their basic elements.

B. A person with apraxia cannot carry out motor activities despite intact motor functioning.

C. A person with apraxia has a third copy of chromosome 21.

D. A person with apraxia cannot perceive color differences.

37. Rio's doctor has confirmed that he is suffering from dementia. Though his motor functioning is intact, he is unable to conduct simple motor activities, such as walking, tying his shoelaces, and typing. This symptom of dementia is referred to as

A. apraxia.

B. dysphoria.

C. dyslexia.

D. anorexia.

38. Adrian, an Alzheimer's patient, asks her daughter for an ice cream bar but when it is given to her, she begins eating it while it is still in the wrapper even though she knows that she is supposed to remove the wrapper. Adrian's behavior represents a disturbance in

A. speech comprehension.

B. executive function.

C. motor coordination.

D. sensory mapping.

39. Garcia, after having suffered from cognitive deficits for a period of five years dies at the age of seventy-five. When her brain is examined, it is discovered that her cerebral cortex had degenerated. It is likely that this woman suffered from

A. Alzheimer's disease.

B. autism.

C. trisomy 21.

D. Tay-Sachs disease.

40. Michelle, a seventy-year-old woman, was a very composed and gentle person. For the past eight months, she has been behaving in a very impulsive and violent manner. Of late she has been experiencing memory problems. She also exhibits other symptoms of dementia. Michelle is most likely suffering from

A. anorexia.

B. Down's syndrome.

C. autism.

D. Pick's disease.

41. In which of the following phases of schizophrenia are the psychotic symptoms most prominent?

A. prodromal

B. residual

C. active

D. brief psychotic disorder

42. In the context of schizophrenic disorders, which of the following is an example of a positive symptom?

A. restricted affect

B. avolition

C. asociality

D. hallucination

43. Which of the following best describes incoherent speech?

A. language that is authoritative

B. language that is emotional

C. language that is incomprehensible

D. language that is abusive

44. Eric, who has schizophrenia, lacks the energy to take any initiative. This condition is referred to as

A. avolition.

B. anhedonia.

C. manic disorder.

D. hypomanic disorder.

45. _____ refers to a lack of interest in social relationships, including an inability to empathize and form close relationships with others.

A. Hallucination

B. Delusion

C. Asociality

D. Illusion

46. Jean has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. She does not have any interest in building social relationships and stays locked up in her room most of the time. This symptom of schizophrenia is referred to as

A. hallucination.

B. delusion.

C. asociality.

D. illusion.

47. The condition associated with schizophrenia in which one's flow of thoughts become vague, unfocused, and illogical is referred to as

A. loosening of associations.

B. thought broadcasting.

C. thought insertion.

D. inappropriate affect.

48. At the age of 30, Claire, a schizophrenic patient, lost her ability to speak. On examining her, the physician could not find any direct physiological cause for Claire's condition. This condition is most likely to be diagnosed as

A. catatonia.

B. manic disorder.

C. hypomanic disorder.

D. autism.

49. Patients recovering from schizophrenia, who are exposed to high levels of criticism are more likely to

A. remain symptom-free for a longer time period.

B. successfully readjust to societal and occupational demands.

C. suffer a relapse and require additional treatment.

D. be immune to tardive dyskinesia

50. Leon was a relatively successful attorney before developing schizophrenia. He has now stopped working and prefers to wander the streets in preparation for an "airlift" of humans by extraterrestrials. He has lost all his property and stays on the streets. His poverty has further aggravated his psychotic symptoms. Leon's story lends credibility to which hypothesis regarding the relationship between social class and schizophrenic symptoms?

A. downward social drift hypothesis

B. social causation hypothesis

C. double bind hypothesis

D. milieu hypothesis

51. Individuals most at risk for schizophrenia are those who

A. reside in their motherland.

B. belong to the rural middle class.

C. belong to the upper class.

D. migrate to lower-status jobs in urban areas.

52. Adrian is recovering from schizophrenia. She has been taking high doses of antipsychotic medications for a very long period of time and has begun to experience uncontrollable movements of her mouth and tongue that make her appear as if she were chewing food in a very exaggerated way. Adrian is experiencing the symptoms of

A. tardive dyskinesia.

B. angina.

C. blepharochalasis.

D. scleritis.

53. Isabel is afraid of gaining weight. To avoid becoming fat, she eats very less. Her restrictive eating behavior has resulted in her being severely underweight. Furthermore, she is overly conscious about the shape of her body. Which of the following best explains Isabel's condition?

A. dissociative fugue

B. bulimia nervosa

C. panic disorder

D. anorexia nervosa

54. Which of the following is considered to be the core feature of anorexia nervosa?

A. frequent binging

B. normal body weight

C. consumption of nonnutritive substances

D. body image disturbance

55. Anne has a persistent urge to steal things. She looks around the stores she visits slipping small items that attract her attention into her purse or pocket. However, her motivation for stealing is not based on need. She steals for the sake of fulfilling her impulse to do so. Which of the following disorders is she most likely to be diagnosed with?

A. amnesia

B. pyromania

C. trichotillomania

D. kleptomania

56. Individuals with kleptomania are driven by a persistent urge to steal because

A. they seek excitement in performing the act.

B. they are motivated by the desire to obtain material possessions.

C. they want to attract attention to themselves.

D. they experience an uncontrollable urge to challenge authorities.

57. Which of the following, if true, suggests that an individual is likely to be diagnosed with pyromania?

A. if that individual sets fires to private property in order to seek revenge on someone

B. if that individual sets fire to buildings for personal relief and gratification

C. if that individual sets fire for monetary reasons

D. if that individual sets fires to private property after being diagnosed with multiple personality disorder

58. Graham finds it inordinately difficult to hold back his anger when stuck in heavy traffic. In such occasions, he often experiences an uncontrollable urge to get out of his car and smash the windshields of the cars lined up ahead of him. In the past, he had been arrested several times for acting on such violent impulses. Graham most likely suffers from _____.

A. trichotillomania

B. depersonalization disorder

C. intermittent-explosive disorder

D. anorexia nervosa

59. Which of the following is an example of purging?

A. Andrew fasts once every month in order to stay healthy.

B. Martha uses laxatives whenever she has constipation.

C. Jeffery regularly takes tranquilizers to combat stress and anxiety.

D. Sherry compensates for the extra calories by vomiting after heavy meals.

60. Which of the following would receive a nonpurging diagnosis?

A. Shane engages in excessive exercise sessions to compensate for what he ate.

B. Betty administers an enema after consuming heavy food.

C. Sam takes anti-depressants every night.

D. Sandra forces herself to vomit after heavy meals.

61. Individuals with bulimia nervosa are most likely to engage in which of the following harmful behaviors?

A. overly depending on sleeping pills to stay calm

B. regurgitating and then rechewing food

C. stealing

D. being unpredictably violent in social situations

62. George had started taking cocaine a year back. He is addicted to the feeling of euphoria brought about by cocaine. Of late, even after using the same amount of cocaine that he had been using for the past year, he feels less of its effects. This condition is referred to as

A. potentiation.

B. tolerance.

C. withdrawal.

D. rejection.

63. Ruth used to get drunk after drinking two gin and tonics. Now she must drink six to get the same effect. Ruth's drinking illustrates the phenomenon of

A. tolerance.

B. withdrawal.

C. rejection.

D. potentiation.

64. The physical and psychological changes that accompany discontinuation of a substance are specifically referred to as _____ symptoms.

A. tolerance

B. intoxication

C. withdrawal

D. potentiation

65. People are most likely to receive a diagnosis of substance intoxication when

A. they experience a drug's effects on their physiological functioning and show signs of significant impairment.

B. they relapse into their addiction after a few signs of withdrawal symptoms.

C. they are able to successfully cope with their withdrawal symptoms to pass from the substance abuse stage to the substance dependence stage.

D. they experience the need to increase the amount of the substance they are addicted to so that they experience the required effect

66. Which of the following alcohol-related diseases can be reversed by having the client take thiamine supplements?

A. Korsakoff's syndrome

B. Wernicke's disease

C. Huntington's disease

D. Down's syndrome

67. An injectable form of naltrexone called _____ has proven to be effective in promoting total abstinence from alcohol.

A. disulfiram

B. nalmefene

C. antabuse

D. morphine

68. The results of longitudinal studies rooted in the sociocultural perspective indicate that individuals who are most likely to become alcohol dependent had a childhood history of

A. excessive dependence on other people.

B. antisocial behavior.

C. overgratification in the oral stage.

D. medical condition requiring heavy medication

69. Long-term drug abuse is most likely to

A. increase the natural level of dopamine in an individual.

B. increase the number of dopamine receptors in the body.

C. decrease the risks of memory impairment.

D. decrease the level of glutamate in an individual.

70. Nicky exhibits all of the classic symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder. Over the past two weeks, she has taken to drinking heavily. Which of the following facts best accounts for her substance abuse?

A. Anxiety disorders and substance-related disorders are linked to the same genetic markers.

B. Individuals with anxiety disorders are more likely to use substances.

C. Individuals with anxiety disorders are more likely to have eating disorders.

D. Generalized anxiety disorders are not curable.

71. Which of the following substances have an activating effect on the nervous system?

A. hypnotics

B. teratogens

C. stimulants

D. sedatives

72. Patrick has just been brought into the emergency room. He is exhibiting a great deal of agitation and hyperalertness. On examining him it was found that his condition was the direct result of a psychoactive substance that has an activating effect on the central nervous system. Which of the following substances is Patrick most likely to have ingested?

A. disulfiram

B. alcohol

C. naltrexone

D. cocaine

73. Nasir occasionally experiences periods of intense overwhelming dread that come about for no reason. These periods are marked by trembling, hot flashes, and chills, and the feeling that he is losing control. Nasir might be diagnosed as having

A. post-traumatic stress.

B. generalized anxiety.

C. phobic disorder.

D. panic disorder.

74. The diagnosis of panic disorder is made after an individual

A. has had an occasional panic attack.

B. has suffered at least one month of apprehension regarding the recurrence of panic.

C. has had two panic attacks in a twelve month period.

D. has had four panic attacks in an eighteen month period.

75. Within the biological perspective, researchers believe that the anxiety associated with specific phobias may be conceived due to abnormalities in the:

A. cerebellum.

B. anterior insular cortex.

C. corpus callosum.

D. medulla oblongata.

76. The anterior insular cortex area of the brain is associated with

A. physical sensation and stimulus.

B. respiration and heart rate.

C. vision and hearing sensations.

D. emotion and self-awareness.

77. Every time Bella starts getting anxious about speaking in public, she starts thinking things like, “Oh God, I'm going to stutter and then everyone will laugh at me” and “I'll probably trip up and accidentally use a four-letter word while reading my notes.” Her therapist has urged her to silently shout “Stop!” to herself when these intrusive thoughts start agitating her. This cognitive technique is known as

A. response blocking.

B. counterthinking.

C. thought stopping.

D. relaxation training.

78. Which of the following is the key feature of paraphilias?

A. The object of desire must be an inanimate object.

B. They must involve abnormal physiological functioning.

C. They must be short-term conditions.

D. There must be a dependence on the sexual target for arousal.

79. Nathan uses binoculars to watch his neighbor Cathy change her clothes. Cathy is not aware that she is being watched by someone while undressing. Nathan is sexually aroused when he watches Cathy. Which of the following disorders is Nathan suffering from?

A. sexual sadism

B. voyeuristic disorder

C. pedophilic disorder

D. exhibitionism

80. Voyeurism, the most frequent paraphilia, is related to exhibitionism, and people with either of these disorders are likely to

A. never have any sexual relationships.

B. have homosexual tendencies.

C. engage in sado-masochistic behaviors and cross-dressing.

D. never get married.

81. In which paraphilia does the individual have a compulsion to derive sexual gratification from observing nudity or the sexual activity of others?

A. frotteurism

B. fetishism

C. voyeurism

D. sadism

82. Which of the following trait of narcissistic personality disorder shows tendency to view oneself as possessing special and extremely favorable personal qualities and abilities?

A. grandiosity

B. compulsivity

C. egocentrism

D. pretentiousness

83. The word “obsessive” as it applies to individuals who suffer from obsessive-compulsive personality disorder refers to the

A. repetitive and specific thoughts that these individuals cannot get out of their minds.

B. ritualistic behaviors these people engage in.

C. unpredictable emotional reactions they have.

D. rigidly compulsive personality tendency they have.

84. It is difficult to treat people with schizoid personality disorder because

A. they are emotionally unstable.

B. they tend to view their therapist with suspicion.

C. their treatment is often mandated by the courts.

D. they are cognitively and emotionally out of touch.

85. The notion that personality disorders are the result of a combination of factors such as a particular temperament, early traumatic experiences, and recent triggering events lends support to the _____ model.

A. biopsychosocial

B. psychodynamic

C. behavioral

D. humanistic

86. The term “borderline personality” was originally coined to describe patients who

A. were on the borderline between normal and abnormal behavior.

B. did not fit into either the neurotic or psychotic category.

C. constantly pushed the borders and limits of acceptable moral behavior.

D. were disliked by most people in their communities.

87. Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of unstable moods, interpersonal relationships, and self-image?

A. borderline personality disorder

B. antisocial personality disorder

C. histrionic personality disorder

D. schizoid personality disorder

88. Risky activities like speeding and bungee-jumping that may be undertaken by psychopaths may be a manifestation of their

A. grandiose self-worth.

B. superficial charm.

C. lack of remorse.

D. impulsiveness.

89. Attempts at taking one's own life in order to gain attention from loved ones is referred to as

A. splitting.

B. parasuicide.

C. narcissistic suicide.

D. deindividuation.

90. When asked why she tried to kill herself, Calista responded, “These past few days I haven't really been sure about myself. I wasn't really sure I was alive. It was a test.” Calista’s intent would be best described as

A. splitting.

B. parasuicidal.

C. dichotomizing.

D. hysterical.

91. Which part of the brain plays a role in aversive conditioning and is involved in processing emotion?

A. amygdala

B. thalamus

C. cerebellum

D. pons

92. Which personality disorder is characterized by an unrealistic, inflated sense of self-importance and an inability to see the perspectives of other people?

A. borderline personality disorder

B. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C. passive-aggressive personality disorder

D. narcissistic personality disorder

93. During his tenure as judge, Donna put an innocent man in a murder trial. Following this incident he lost his appetite leading to weight loss and developed insomnia. Of late he has also become dysphoric and has developed suicidal tendencies. Which of the following disorders best fits as a diagnosis to Donna’s case?

A. major depressive disorder

B. bipolar I disorder

C. bipolar II disorder

D. cyclothymic disorder

94. Which is true regarding major depressive episode?

A. Both/either of the “depressed mood” and/or “diminished interest or pleasure in activities” together with the other symptoms is/are required for the diagnosis

B. Both/either of the “diminished interest or pleasure in activities” and/or “suicidal ideation” along with the other symptoms is/are required for the diagnosis

C. Both/either of the “depressed mood” and/or “feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt” along with the 4 other symptoms is/are required for the diagnosis

D. None of the above

95. Which of the following refers to a period of elated mood?

A. dysphoric episode

B. hypomanic episode

C. dysthymic disorder

D. major depressive episode

96. At what age is bipolar disorder usually diagnosed?

A. Before 12 years of age

B. Between ages 25 and 40

C. After age 65

D. Between ages 15 and 24

97. Clinicians are most likely to diagnose people who have four or more episodes of major depression, mania, hypomania, or mixed symptoms with

A. major depressive disorder

B. dysthymic disorder.

C. rapid-cycling form of bipolar disorder.

D. hypothyroidism.

98. Allan suffers from mild mood swings that range from dysphoria to hypomania. His mood can change rapidly and at times his behavior borders on eccentric, but he still holds down a job at the neighborhood hardware store. Allan is most likely suffering from

A. dysthymic disorder.

B. cyclothymic disorder

C. rapid cycling form of bipolarity.

D. major depressive disorder.

99. An individual with ________ disorder may show physical symptoms such as breast tenderness or swelling, joint or muscle pain, a sensation of “bloating,” or weight gain.

A. Major depressive disorder

B. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

C. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

D. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

100. Which of the following is true regarding disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?

A. The diagnosis should not be made for the first time after age 6 years

B. The diagnosis should not be made for the first time before age 6 years or after age 18 years

C. The diagnosis should be made for the first time after age 18 years

D. The diagnosis should be made for the first time before age 18 years but not later than age 25 years